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I tried to read the wikipedia article that answers this question, but found it difficult to understand In japanese this accent is named flat (平板 heiban). Ditto with the related lse question

Is the concept of syllables pronuncia. If the word does not have an accent, the pitch rises from a low starting point on the first mora or two, and then levels out in the middle of the speaker's range, without ever reaching the high tone of an accented mora The ages, races, and population density of mora county, new mexico tell a story

Understand the shifts in demographic trends with these charts visualizing decades of population data.

Due to persistent and intensive language contact, indian languages share many features This prompted emeneau 1 to describe these languages as belonging to a common linguistic area or sprachbund. What that means with respect to the definitions it puts forward, i don't know. A mora is an object which allows the possibility of representational contrastiveness, so if a language has short and long vowels, that can be represented via one versus two moras on a vowel.

Why not just light/medium/heavy?!) is there an example from generative phonology that explains this Sometimes all this theoretical stuff confuses me Is there a standard representation that combines onset, nucleus, coda with mora That would help me visualize the prosodic hierarchy better, because i could put something beneath the syllable level.

If mora are potentially sufficient to describe language, then what do syllables add, in theory

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